Question

Select one answer. Colorblindness is any abnormality of the color vision system that causes a person to see colors differently than most people, or to have difficulty distinguishing among certain colors (www.visionrx.com). 10 points Colorblindness is gender-based, while the majority of sufferers being males. Roughly 8% of white males have some form of colorblindness, while the incidence among white females is only 1%. A random sample of 20 white males and 40 white females was chosen. Let X be the number of males (out of the 20) who are colorblind. Let Y be the number of females (out of the 40) who are colorblind. Let Z be the total number of colorblind individuals in the sample (males and females together). What is the probability that exactly 2 of the 20 males are colorblind? (Note: Some answers are rounded.) A. B. c. D. E. 0.08 0.2711 0.0519 0.5422 0.0159

Answer 1

Given that ,8% of white males have some form of color blindness p=0.08 n = 20 x x 20-Y follows Binomial distribution with parameters rand p. X ~ Binomial (n=20, p=0.08) The probabilily man function is given by P(x=x) = (20) (0.08) (1-0.087 : x=0,1,2.... 20 The probability that exactly 2 of the 20 males are colorblind : P(X=2) P(X= 2) - 1200 (0.083°C-0.08) 20-2 = 0. 271090605 o. 2711 Option ③