Expected cash flow = $3 million
Tenor = 20 years
Net Present Value = Total Cash Inflows PV from Investments – Cost of Investments
So we need to find the present value of the 20 years cash flow
Present Value of periodic payment= P* (1- (1+r)^-n)/r
P = 3 million
R= 13%
N= 20
PV= 3(1-(1+0.13)^-20)/ 0.13
= 3*0.913/0.13
= 21.074
So NPV= 21.074-20
= 1.07 million
|
probability |
cash flow |
adjusted cash flow ( probability * cash flow) |
|
0.5 |
1.8 |
0.90 |
|
0.5 |
4.2 |
2.10 |
|
total |
3.00 |
So the adjusted cash flow $3 million per year
Present Value of periodic payment= P* (1- (1+r)^-n)/r
P = 3 million
R= 13%
N= 19
PV= 3(1-(1+0.13)^-20)/ 0.13
= 3*0.913/0.13
= 21.074
But the value of PV is at the end of 1 yr , we need to find the PV of today
PV= Future Value / (1 + interest rate%)^n
PV= 21.074/(1.13)
= 18.65
So NPV= 18.65-20
= -1.35 million.
As we can see that if they wait for 1 yr the NPV turns negative.
So it is not a good decision to wait and they should invest toady.
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