
Please explain why how did they SWAP step by step and no handwriting thanks!!!
Let us consider the net rate at which the firm will pay interest on its borrowings in each alternative:
1. The company can either borrow at a fixed rate of 8%. In this case, this is the final rate at which it will pay interest for each period.
2. The company can borrow at Prime Rate + 3% and swap it for a fixed rate:
But the party which will swap is ready to pay Prime Rate + 6% every period if it receives 10% fixed rate for each period
So our firm will pay 10% fixed rate to the other party that will swap and will receive Prime Rate + 6% in return. Out of this, the firm will pay Prime Rate + 3% as its interest charge (each period)
Tus we can write net return as: -10% + P+6% -(P+3%) = -10% + 3% = -7% ( Minus sign implying outflow)
So the final interest cost for the firm, in this case, turns out to be 7% per period which is better than 8%. So the firm should proceed as per this scheme.
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Please explain why how did they SWAP step by step and no handwriting thanks!!! test. पq.S....
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