Free Cash Flow to Firm (FCFF) is derived using the following formula :-
FCFF = EBIT * (1-tax rate) + Depreciation - Fixed Capital Investment - Working Capital Investment
EBIT refers to Earnings before Interest and Taxes or Operating Profit.
Please Note that the Question does not provide any information regarding "Depreciation", "Fixed Capital Investment" and "Working Capital Investment" and hence, we are assuming them to be 0
Attaching the calculations and the formulas used :-


Hence, Enterprise Value = 1490.12 mn
We know that,
Enterprise Value = Market Value of Debt + Market Value of Equity - Cash & Cash Equivalents
Plugging in known values we get :-
1490.12 = 100 + Market Value of Equity - 90
1490.12 - 10 = Market Value of Equity
Market Value of Equity = 1480.12 mn
No of shares outstanding = 150 mn
Hence, share price = ( 1480.12 / 150) = $9.87 or $9.9
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I know you have a rule that you can only answer one question,
but my time is running out and I still have a lot of questions to
solve. Please give me an accommodation. If you just answer one
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don't.
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