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Is the neoclassical growth model consistent with the gap between the richest and poorest country's GDP...

Is the neoclassical growth model consistent with the gap between the richest and poorest country's GDP per-capita levels? Explain why or why not.

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Neoclassical growth model talks of absolute convergence in GDP per Capital and it states that since poor countries are farther away from their steady state will develop faster than the rich countries and are bound to achieve absolute convergence with the rich countries whereas the present history states otherwise since as per modern economics we are seeing a gap between gdp per capital for a rich nation and poor nation and this gap is ever increasing, at the same time conditional convergence can not be ruled out countries with stable political system, increasing school enrolments and high saving rates are somewhat converging to the levels of the rich nation with examples like China, India etc.

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