In ideal market:
1-year spot rate = 6%
2-year spot rate = 5%
Thus,
1-year forward rate starting in one year:
![1.052 1.1] = 1.06 二](http://img.homeworklib.com/questions/507af790-7a07-11ea-95fe-e93a89fe4dba.png?x-oss-process=image/resize,w_560)

(a) A bank is offering 1-year forward rate starting in one year of 3.5%, this forward rate is less than implied 1-year forward rate of ideal market. Thus, arbitrage opportunity exist here.
Investment Strategy:
Borrow from Bank(i.e offering lower 1-year forward rate) and Invest in ideal market for two years at 2-year spot rate.
Effective interest rate charged by bank in two years:


And, Interest rate earned in ideal market for two year investment = 5%
Thus, Risk free gain in terms of interest rate = 5.00%-4.74% = 0.26%
(b)
If A bank is offering 1-year forward rate starting in one year of 4.5%, this forward rate is more than implied 1-year forward rate of ideal market. Thus, arbitrage opportunity exist here.
Investment Strategy:
Invest in Bank(i.e offering higher 1-year forward rate) and borrow from ideal market for two years at 2-year spot rate.
Effective interest rate earned from bank in two years:


And, Interest rate charged by ideal market for two year borrowing = 5%
Thus, Risk free gain in terms of interest rate = 5.25%-5.00% = 0.25%
Hope this will help, please do comment if you need any further explanation. Your feedback would be highly appreciated.
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