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Define g:Z → Z by the rule g(n)= n2 – 2, for all integers n. is gone-to-one? No. A counterexample would be g(1)= g(-1) but 17
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Ans>option 1.

Given g:Z-Z by g(n) = x2 – 2, The funcion F is not one-to-one, since some distinct elements in the domain Z have the same ima

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