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The Department of Engineering is contemplating the purchase of a top-of-the- line PCB drilling machine to be used in its labo
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Answer #1

Note- We need the MARR/Interest Rate to calculate PW. It is not given, so assuming it as 8%.

Detailed cashflows are shown below. Explanation follows-

Year Initial Cost Benefit Depreciation Selling Value 0 -5000 1 500 2 500 3 500 4 5 (5000-S)/10 (5000-5)/10 (5000-5)/10 (5000-

For the break even to happen, the net benefit in terms of PW should be equal to the initial cost.

As given, the final value after 10 years is S and the depreciation method is Straight Line. Meaning that each year the machine will depreciate by (5000-10)/S. So, after 8 years, its value would be 5000-8*(5000-S)/10. The total benefit at the end of year 8 is 500+(5000-8*(5000-S)/10)

Now, total NPV of benefits is

500 500 5000-5 10 500 1.08 + 500 1.083 十 十 十 500 1.08 500 + 5000-8x 1.088 十 500 500 1.085 1.08? 十 1.08 1.084

At break even, this would be equal to initial cost of 5000. So at break even

50005 5000 : 500 1.08 500 500 + 5000-8 10 十 500 1.08? 十 500 1.084 十 500 1.085 十 500 500 1.086 1.087 1.08 1.088

Solving for S (ideal to use a equation solver tool such as mathematica or wolfram etc), we get

S=3670.42

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