SOLUTION
Given function f(x)=e(-1/x^2) for x not equal to zero and f(0)=0 that means if we substitute 0 in place of x then the power of -infinity to e will give zero.
(a). f(x)=e(-1/x^2)
f(1)(x)=e(-1/x^2)/2!(x3).
f(2)(x)=(1/2!)(x3(e(-1/x^2)/2!(x3)-(e(-1/x^2)(3x2))/(x6)..............
Like that derivatives will go
f(1)(0)=0,f(2)(0)=0.......
Derivative exists for all k>=1.So,f is converges to infinity that means f is C& every where on the real axis.that means f is converges to 0 for derivative changing from 1 to infinity times from above explanation.
(b).Now,take formula for taylor series expansion
f(x)=f(p)+f'(p)(x-p)+f"(p)(x-p)2/2!+..........
Now,if p=0 then
f(x)=f(0)+f'(0)(x)+(f"(0))(x2)/2+........
Already given in the problem that f(0)=0 and we also got f'(0)=f"(0)=.....=0.
So,substitute these values in the above expansion
Finally we will get
f(x)=0.So,it is converges everywhere on real axis but it represents f only at origin because we got f(x)=0 and it is 0 for 0 value of x that means f(0)=0.So, x value zero means we are representing f value at origin only and that 0(x=0).
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