please solve and show your work for problem 6.6.
there is an effective incremental income tax rate of 40%

a) straight line method
depreciation amount = (Cost of asset - salvage value) / depriciable
life
= (60000 - 12000)/ 3
= 48000/3
= $16000
BV at the end of fifth year = asset cost - (accumulated depreciation through year )
= 60000 - 60000 (at the end of 5th year accumulated depreciation amount would be 60000)
= 0.
b) SYD method
depreciation amount = (N - t + 1) (asset cost basis - salvage
value) / sum-of-years-digits (N = total no. of years & t =
depreciable years)
= (5-3+1) (48000) / (1+2+3+4+5)
= 3 X 48000 / 15
= $9600
BV at the end of fifth year = asset cost - (accumulated
depreciation through year )
= 60000 - 48000 (accumulated depreciation through year = 16000 +
12800 + 9600 + 6400 + 3200)
= $ 12000
c) 200% declining balance method
depreciation amount = (2/N) X {asset cost - (accumulated depreciation through year )}
for 1st year = (2/5) X (60000 - 0)
= 2 X 12000
= 24000
for 2nd year = (2/5) X (60000 - 12000)
= 2 X 9600
= 19200
for 3rd year = (2/5) X (60000 - 43200)
= 2 X 3360
= 6720
In this method it doesn’t always use assets salvage value while computing the depreciation, however, depreciation ends once the estimated salvage value of the asset is reached.
BV at the end of fifth year = technically not possible as the depriciation reaches the salvage value in three years.
4) MACRS method =
Annual Depreciation Rate=200%/7=28.5714%
depreciation amount =
for 1st year = 60000 X 28.5714%
= 17143
book value = 60000 -17143 = 42857
for 2nd year = 42857 X 28.5714%
= 12244
book value = 60000 - 17143 - 12244 = 30613
for 3rd yeart = 30613 X 28.5714%
= 8747
book value = 60000 - 17143 - 12244 -8747 = 21866
for 4th year = 21866 X 28.5714%
= 6247
book value = 60000 - 17143 - 12244 - 8747 - 6247 = 15619
for 5th year = 15619 X 28.5714%
= 4463
book value = 60000 - 17143 - 12244 - 8747 - 6247 - 4463. = 11156.
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