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1.They should use the weighted average cost of capital because |
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Given that "the firm’s target capital structure is 30% long-term debt, 10 % preferred stock, and 60% percent common stock equity"--it will be only proper if the costs of all types of capital , in proportion to their weights, are included --so as to assess the feasibility of the project , in light of the costs of financing it. |
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2.Firm’s after-tax cost of debt financing |
| We equate the net proceeds of the issue,ie. After flotation cost--to the PV s of the bond's cash flows, at the yield ,which is the before-tax cost of the bond. |
| ie. Net proceeds=(Pmt.*(1-(1+r)^-n)/r)+(FV/(1+r)^n) |
| where net proceeds=Issue price-Flotation cost,ie. 1153.72-(1%*1000)=1143.72 |
| Pmt.= the periodic coupon pmt., ie. 1000*12%/2= 60 |
| r= the semi-annual yield --to be found out --?? |
| n= no.of semi-annual coupon periods=30*2= 60 |
| FV=Face value= $ 1000 |
| Now, plugging in the values in the formula, |
| 1143.72=(60*(1-(1+r)^-60)/r)+(1000/(1+r)^60) |
| & solving for r, we get the semi-annual before tax cost as, |
| 5.21% |
| So. Annual before-tax cost=(1+5.21%)^2-1= |
| 10.69% |
| After-tax cost of the bond= Before-tax cost*(1-Tax Rate) |
| ie. 10.69%*(1-40%)= |
| 6.41% |
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3.Firm’s cost of preferred stock financing |
| Cost of preferred stock=$ dividend/stock/Net proceeds per stock |
| Net proceeds /stock=Issue price-Flotation cost |
| (10%*100)/(113.1-2)= |
| 9% |
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4.According to CAPM,Firm’s cost of financing using the retained earning |
| As per CAPM,Cost of ret. Earn.k re=RFR+(Beta*(mkt.return-RFR)) |
| ie.k re=7%+(1.2*(13%-7%)) |
| 14.2% |
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5.According to the Gordon Growth Model, Firm’s cost of financing using the retained earning |
| According to GGM, K re= (Next dividend/Current stock price)+Growth Rate |
| Where next dividend=(D0*(1+g)) |
| k re=(4.19*(1.05)/50)+5%= |
| 13.80% |
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6.Firm’s cost of equity, if the firm issues new common stock |
| we need to consider the flotation cost on new issue, & net the proceeds. |
| in which case, we can only use the DDM |
| ie.ke=(4.19*(1.05)/(50*(1-15%)))+5%= |
| 15.35% |
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7.Firm’s weighted average cost of capital if the firm uses debt, preferred stock and retained earnings. |
| Cost of retained earnings to be used here is as per CAPM, as there is no new issue ,that is dependent on dividend cash flows. |
| So, the WACC=(Wt.d*kd)+(Wt. ps*k ps)+(Wt. re*k re) |
| ie.(30%*6.41%)+(10%*9%)+(60%*14.2%)= |
| 11.34% |
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8.Firm’s weighted average cost of capital if the firm uses debt, preferred stock and equity from the new common stock issue |
| WACC=(Wt.d*kd)+(Wt. ps*k ps)+(Wt.e*k e) |
| ie.(30%*6.41%)+(10%*9%)+(60%*15.35%)= |
| 12.03% |
| 9. NPV of the upgrade at the WACC (11.34%) with new equity= |
| -165+(25*5.80620)+(20*1.98326)+(15*0.67744)+(1*0.03985)= |
| 30.02 |
| Millions |
| 10. NPV of the upgrade at the WACC(12.03%) with Retained Earnings= |
| -165+(25*5.64329)+(20*1.81213)+(15*0.58190)+(1*0.03311)= |
| 21.09 |
| Millions. |
| 11. YES. The firm can upgrade the plant as NPVs of upgrading at both WACC are POSITIVE & bring value to the firm. |
| NOTE: PV Factors used: | |
| P/A,i=11.34%n=1-10 yrs. | 5.8062 |
| 11-20 yrs. | 1.98326 |
| 20-30 yrs. | 0.67744 |
| P/F yr.30 | 0.03985 |
| P/A,i=12.03%n=1-10 yrs. | 5.64329 |
| 11-20 yrs. | 1.81213 |
| 20-30 yrs. | 0.58190 |
| P/F yr.30 | 0.03311 |
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