Give a FORMAL proof for the following two questions regarding
one-way permutation: (a) Assume f is a one-way permutation. Define
F = f ◦ f as the composition of f with itself, i.e. F(x) = f(f(x))
for all x in the domain of f. Prove that F is a one-way
permutation. (b) Assume that g is a permutation and it has a
hard-core bit. Prove that g is one-way.
Related to Introduction to Modern Cryptography by Jonathan
Katz.
The first question is a special case of the second, so let's deal with the second. Clearly, f∘g
is still bijective (as composition of two bijective functions), so the question is whether it is also one-way.
Assume by contradiction it is not. This means that, given an element y
, there exists an efficient algorithm to find the preimage x of y with regard to f∘g:
f∘g(x)=y.
But by definition of a one-way function, evaluating g can be done efficiently. Therefore, combining the two, one gets an efficient algorithm which, given y, finds the pre image x′ of y with regard to f: namely, x′=g((f∘g)−1(y)). This contradicts the fact that f is one-way.
Therefore, f∘g is also a one-way permutation.
Note that by inspection of the proof, all that is needed is the weaker requirement that (i) f
is a one-way permutation, and (ii) g is a permutation that can be evaluated efficiently (not necessarily one-way).
Give a FORMAL proof for the following two questions regarding one-way permutation: (a) Assume f is...
F1.
need help solving this problem.
1. (25 pts) Here's a neat theorem. Suppose that f la, b] [a, b] is continuous; then f will always map some s-value to itself (a so-called fixed point): i.e. 3 c E (a, b) for which f(c)-c (a) Give a "visual proof" of this theorem. Hint: take your inspiration from our "visual proofs" of Theorem 15 and IVT And notice here that the domain and range of f are the same interval; this...
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