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Given that Berkowitz offers a “neo-associationistic” explanation for anger and, therefore, at least emotional (if not...

Given that Berkowitz offers a “neo-associationistic” explanation for anger and, therefore, at least emotional (if not instrumental) aggression, is it fair to consider his work an example of a dual process theory?

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Dual process theory provides information on how thought can arise in two different ways or result of two different process. The process consit of an unconsious process and a consious process

Neo associationalistic explanantion of anger consider automatic non conscious reactions and epmpahasis athat angry feeling are linked to approch motivation movement towards perceived source of anger.

In fact in this theory both unconsious and consious movements are explained in anger. So it can be considered as an example of Dual process theory

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