Financing choice in perfect markets (assume no taxes)
PAM is a small company with the following assets:
PAM will cease to exist after the cash flows are realized and distributed to investors.
Both states of the economy are equally likely. For these types of risky investments the market requires a 20% expected return on assets.
The firm has no debt and there are currently 100,000 shares (0.1 million) outstanding.
Assume perfect markets (i.e., there are no taxes or transaction costs, no asymmetric information or incentive problems).
Book Values: Market Values:
|
Assets: |
D: E: |
Assets: |
D: E: |
In parts 2) through 6), assume the firm finances the new project by issuing equity.
Book Values: Market Values:
|
Assets: |
D: E: |
Assets: |
D: E: |
Please provide work and explanations. Thanks!
From the information present in the question we know that -
1) Presently the firm has assets worth $6 million.
2) Expected future cash flow is $8 million (recession) and $8.8 million (boom).
3) Expected return required by investors is 20% (this is our discout factor).
4) New project would cost $2 million (would require fresh issue of shares) and expected return after 1 year would be $4 million (recession) and $8 million (boom).
Book Value and Market Value based on current setup -
| Book Value | Market Value | |
| Debt | - | - |
| Equity | $6.00 M | $7.00 M |
Market Value of Equity = [($8 million + $8.8 million)*0.5] / 1.20.
We are assuming 50% probability of a recession and boom. Hence, we are adding both the future expected cash flows and bringing them to their present value (dividing by 1 + 20% expected return).
Current price per share = $7 million / 100,000 = $70 per share
Number of equity shares required to be issued = $2 million / market price per share = $2 million / $70 = 2,857.143
Expected cash flow if the company is liquidated -
1) $8.4 million (based on current assets)
2) $6.0 million from new project ($4 million and $8 million with a 50% probability for each)
Expected cash flow after 1 year = $8.4 million + $6 million = $14.4 million
Return for equity shareholders = [(PV of Expected Cashflow / Total No of Shares) - MV of 1 share] / MV of 1 share
={[($14.4 million / 1.2) / (100,000 + 2,857.143)] - $70} / $70
=($116.67- $70) / $70 = 66.67%
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