Question

Question 31 FLAG QUESTION Timolol has been prescribed to treat glaucoma for a patient. Which of the following is most accurate to explain its mechanism of action? Answers A-E A Timolol is an alpha2 agonist and it reduces intraocular pressure by dilating blood vessels in the eyes. B Timolol is a non-selective beta blocker and it reduces aqueous humor production by the ciliary body, C Timolol is a cardiac selective beta blocker and it is much safer to use for a glaucoma and COPD patient. D Timolol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist and it reduces aqueous humor production by the ciliary body. E Timolol is a cholinesterase inhibitor and it promotes aqueous humor outflow.

Answer 1

Answer ; B) Timolol is a non-selective beta blockers and it reduces the aqueous humor production by the ciliar body.

Reason ; The significant purpose of these drug is to reduce the pressure found with the inner eye and these can be achieved by interfering the form of liquid production within the eye. These can be done by blocking some beta receptors rather than alpha or cholinergic receptors. Therefore the above mentioned statement would be the appropriate mechanism of the given drug and the other statement are not relevant to these drugs.