Question

suppose you have an optimal consumption point at which you are consuming only x. does the equal marginal principple apply? why or why not?

Answer 1

the given statement is actually false and this is because of the fact that equimarginal principle States the marginal utility of the good divided by the price should be equal to that of the marginal utility of the other good divided by its price and since when you are consuming only good x, this means there is no other good involved where the equimarginal principal doesn't apply all in all